POSTED BY KK ON May 17, 2014 11:07 am COMMENTS (2)
Hi,
If a person has 2 houses and if he sells one of them and use that money in settling the home loan on other house then will the CG be exempted?
Dear Ashal,
Is it because the funds are not directly used to buy the house but used for repaying the loan? Or is there any other reason?
Dear KK, the answer is NO.
Thanks
Ashal
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Dear Ashal,
Is it because the funds are not directly used to buy the house but used for repaying the loan? Or is there any other reason?
Dear KK, the answer is NO.
Thanks
Ashal